I guess I'm confused. So, when BZ says:

For those of us who know anything about the last 2500 years of Jewish history, this is no problem at all, since Judaism has evolved continuously from the biblical period to the rabbinic period to the present.

(If we're just observing biblical Judaism, then not only are there no women rabbis, there are no men rabbis either!)

Is (s)he not saying that the Bible has been manipulated from the Biblical period to the Rabbinic to the Present? Only the interpretation has been manipulated? Being that the Torah has been around for millenia, and touched by countless hands in the process, and translated forward and backwards, I find it difficult to believe that it's the Original Word. Even if it's all in ancient Hebrew and nothing else in those fancy containers (It probably is. I really don't know anything about that).

But again, either way, what does it matter? I guess no one's been able to satisfactorily explain to me (without using a 'Because it always needed to be this way for Judaism to survive' reasoning) why we have a right to interpret the Bible [multiple ways].